Our multilevel, time-lagged regressions also indicate that tolerance for individual rights predicted 20th century economic growth even better than secularization.What does that mean? Does it mean that tolerance predicted growth "even better than secularization predicted growth" or "even better than tolerance predicted secularization" ?
I could probably go back to the source, read it more carefully, and figure out what they mean. But if the reader has to do that, the writer is not doing his job.
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